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Do you want to be a Professional?

2009-02-20T17:40:00.001-08:00

Do you want to be a Professional?

if one were to ask a young student in the tenth or earlier class what he or she aims to be, the answer will invariably be 'to become a doctor or engineer'. It is a fact that many parents want their children to join a professional course which to them means their ward becoming a doctor or engineer. Very often people tend to ignore the fact that medical and engineering professions are only two among the large number of professions which include legal, financial and many others. It is fairly obvious that the reason for this mad rush to become a doctor or engineer is the glamour and the financial rewards that they will be able to accumulate on a successful professional career. However, they tend to ignore the basic and essential obligations of a professional to the society. This note is intended to throw some light on the responsibilities and behavioral characteristics required of a true professional. A model code of conduct of one of the largest professional societies in the world also will be discussed

Behaviour of Professionals

Professionals have to set examples for their behaviour in the society as perfect human beings and therefore some important behavioural traits of professionals are worth discussing.

Honesty and Integrity

These are expected characteristics of every human being, but essential for a true professional. A professional has to be honest and honorable in his deeds and honour brings in honour as reward. Integrity is a word often used, which broadly means moral soundness or totality or moral soundness in the behaviour.

Responsibility and accountability

It is natural that a professional is responsible for his actions and behaviour. He or she has to be ready to accept responsibility for their actions and they have to be accountable. Accountability is a term usually forgotten in the day to day activities, particularly for government employees, these days, as many of them find an excuse for being accountable for the deeds, because of no single person can be held responsible for a decision taken in an office.

Accountability is associated with responsibility. The importance of accountability has been accepted in government establishments now as promotion and other incentives are based on what you do rather than when you have joined an establishment. There was a time when promotion to higher posts was simply based on the length of service, rather than the amount of work that you have put in during the period.

Norms have been evolved to give incentive for extra work and people who cannot deliver, cannot go up the ladder even in government institutions. Of course, private institutions pay well to those who do well and those who do not perform will be shown the exit door at the earliest. In these days of high competition, accountability is the watchword. Many employers have done away with the annual increment in the salary and switched over to occasional incentives on successful completion of certain jobs.

These are days of consumer courts and consumer protection societies and doctors and other professionals who deals with human life have to be very careful in their decision making. Some decisions may go wrong, even if you have taken it in the best of faith, but some times, it may not be easy to prove your best intentions in a consumer court. In general, a professional has to be accountable to the institution to which he or she is attached to, to the public at large and to himself or his conscience.

Respect

Respect others if you want others to respect you. Some people may respect you because of your position and power you have, but true respect should come from within, because you deserve to be respected. Respect your elders even if they are in a lower professional cadre than you are.

Achieve excellence and be scholastic

A constant endeavor to achieve excellence is the hall mark of all successful professionals and even if you are not able to achieve extreme levels of excellence, there should be a conscious effort at improvement. Updating the knowledge should also be a continuous process, even after graduation or post graduation, the knowledge should be upgraded.

Even after acquiring the highest degree of Doctor of Philosophy or Doctor of Science, one has to keep their knowledge upgraded by constant reading and be aware of the recent developments in their area of specialization. This will result in your becoming second to none in your knowledge and will take you the goal of excellence.

This is particularly relevant for engineering and medical professions where the facts and findings of today become obsolete tomorrow as the technology is updated with better understanding of the biological processes are made available with the help of technology. Remember , excellence is not an end, it is a pursuit which has to be continuous.

Leadership

A professional should be able to lead. Leaders are not born. By taking initiatives to do things in the early stages of one's career and personality development, one can develop leadership qualities. It is easy to follow some one who is leading, but leading a group successfully to a destination requires skill, tenacity and initiative. Reluctance to make decisions in the proper time may result in your chance to lead a group. Please note this statement is not applicable to at least a section of the political leaders who get leadership thrust on them by their godfathers or sycophants for their short term benefits. True leader comes up because of his abilities and leadership qualities, not by sponsorship from his kith and kin. Remember the message "LEAD, FOLLOW or GET OUT OF THE WAY". The leaders lead and the followers follow, but there is a group, though small who will do neither. These people become an ultimate nuisance to the society if they are allowed to continue as such.

Altruism

Altruism or selflessness is:

the quality of unselfish concern for the welfare of others
acting with less concern for yourself than for the success of the joint activity

This can go a long way in building up the career of a professional. The world has given us so much, at least try to pay something back to the world. Any act done without expecting a reward will be ultimately rewarded by some one else. Things done without ulterior motives or without guilt feeling and without expecting a reward is real altruism. The ultimate reward for such selfless act will only be ' a feeling of goodness or satisfaction' .

Caring, Compassion and Communication

These are again essential qualities a professional should develop. A professional should be caring and considerate to their subordinates and should show compassion and sympathy to those who are in distress. The fact that one cares for others should be expressed in a suitable way, so that the person in distress will feel the comfort of being cared for. Sometimes, even verbal or physical expressions of compassion can sooth the person to a significant extent. Mere expression of sympathy with hollow words cannot be of any use and can be easily detected by an intelligent person, even when he is in distress.

Why Professional education is different?

We have heard about amateurs and professionals in sports. There was a time, when only amateurs were eligible to participate in the Olympics. In tennis, the courts of the All England Club for Wimbledon were open to professionals only recently. In the games like tennis, football and basketball, teams or individuals play for the prize money rather than for a trophy and the fame associated with the prize.

But of late, the distinction between the categories of amateurs and professionals in sports and games has become almost negligible. However, it has been accepted that professionals in sports or games play for monetary rewards rather than fame and recognition, even though the latter comes automatically. In terms of a professional career like engineering or medicine, a professional has to undergo a specialized training programme over a reasonably long period of time before becoming a professional.

The training or education of a professional is more intensive and rigorous, than that of a non professional. For example, the students in a medical college often have to work for hours or days at a stretch without sleeping a wink, at times. The regular class hours are much longer than in arts and science colleges. Normally, classes start from 8AM and may go up to 7PM or beyond on most of the days. Holidays are very few and week days and Sundays are alike as far as work and practical classes in the hospital are concerned. Moreover, students in the professional colleges are required to stay in the campus as professional institutions are to be residential in nature. Major part of the learning is not through reading or listening to lectures, but by seeing how things are being done by teachers and practicing professionals and ultimately by doing things under supervision when they are mature enough to do things

Profession and occupation

Profession is an occupation requiring special education
Occupation is the principal activity in your life that you do to earn money

Occupation fetches you the money for the needs of your life, but a profession gives you much more than that. Monetary benefits are not necessarily the primary aim of a professional. Professionals are dedicated to their profession and the primary objective is to serve the humanity. Once they have acquired the education / training for the profession, they can practice their profession. In many professions like medical or legal profession, a formal registration is required.

For example, a medical doctor has to register himself with Indian Medical Council and satisfy the conditions of registration. Similarly, those who have acquired degrees in law have to register or enroll as lawyers after their legal education. Professional architects and engineers have to register. Registration here means acceptance of certain norms and code of conduct in the profession. In the event of a violation of these codes of conduct, the registration can be suspended or cancelled altogether, in which case he or she will not be allowed to practice in the profession in the country in which they have registered.

Occupation, on the other hand, needs no such registration. Once the person is found to be capable of doing the job to the satisfaction of the employer, he or she can be 'occupied' by the job and receive monetary rewards for their efforts. In rare instances, engineers may work as clerical staff or administrative assistants and this can only be called an occupation rather than a profession. A professional can sometimes opt for an occupation that does not necessarily be related to his chosen profession.

Professional societies – their role

Professionals like doctors, engineers, lawyers etc form societies which are called professional societies. These are nongovernmental organizations formed of groups of professionals to do service to the society and for social contacts among them.

Indian Medical Association (IMA), Institution of Engineers(IE) , Computer Society of India(CSI), Systems Society of India(SSI) etc are typical professional societies. Institution of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE,USA) is the largest professional society in the world (www.ieee.org) with more than three million members all over the world and nearly 8000 student branches attached to several universities and other educational institutions.

Most of these societies publish several journals on research papers of outstanding nature and IEEE has more than 50 journals on different aspects of Electrical Electronics and Computer Engineering. Being a member of these societies either as a student or a practicing professional makes you a part of a big network of professionals who will be ready to exchange valuable information between them either through publications or even through personal communications.

An individual who wants to learn from experienced professionals can learn a lot by this networking with professionals. Most of these societies have their own Code of Ethics which the members are committed to follow.

Code of Ethics of IEEE

Now as a sample for code of conduct of a professional engineer, let us consider the Code of ethics of Institution of Electrical and Electronic Engineers IEEE.

In accepting a personal obligation to our profession, its members and the communities we serve, we do hereby commit ourselves to the highest ethical and professional conduct

to accept responsibility in making engineering decisions consistent with the safety, health and welfare of the public, and to disclose promptly factors that might endanger the public or the environment;
to avoid real or perceived conflicts of interest whenever possible, and to disclose them to affected parties when they do exist
to be honest and realistic in stating claims or estimates based on available data ? to reject bribery in all its forms;
to improve the understanding of technology, its appropriate application, and potential consequences
to seek, accept, and offer honest criticism of technical work, to acknowledge and correct errors, and to credit properly the contributions of others;
to treat fairly all persons regardless of such factors as race, religion, gender, disability, age, or national origin;
to avoid injuring others, their property, reputation, or employment by false or malicious action
to assist colleagues and co-workers in their professional development and to support them in following this code of ethics.

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pcc results in ICAI published on caresults.nic.in

2009-01-29T01:06:00.001-08:00

PCC RESULTS Professional Competence Examination

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India Examination Results, Nov 2008 of ICAC Professional Competence Courses

he results of the Chartered Accountants Professional Education - II and Professional Competence Examinations held in May, 2008 are likely to be declared and the same as well as the merit list (candidates securing a minimum of 55% and above marks and upto the maximum of 50th Rank) on all India basis will be available on the following website:

http://www.caresults.nic.in

Arrangements have also been made for the students desirous of having results on their e-mail addresses to pre-register their requests at the above website

The results of the Chartered Accountants Professional Education - II and Professional Competence Examinations are likely to be declared on all India basis will be available on the following website:

http://www.caresults.nic.in

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MAJOR RELAXATION FOR ADMISSION TO MBA AND OTHER MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES

2009-01-17T19:04:00.000-08:00

For the first time in the history of Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) the minimum eligibility for admission to MBA and other PG Diplomas in Management have been relaxed announced Prof. V. N. Rajasekharan Pillai, Vice Chancellor.

Now fresh graduates with 50% marks for general category and 45% for reserved category are eligible for OPENMAT entrance test of IGNOU.

The essential clause of 3 years experience in Supervisory and Managerial category for graduates has been removed. Even those graduates who have successfully cleared the entrance test for admission into the Management programmes conducted by recognized institutions like CAT, MAT and State level tests conducted by State Government etc. need not sit for the OPENMAT entrance test of IGNOU.

There is no age bar for any of the following programmes, the admission of which has opened.
Master of Business Administration (MBA)
Diploma in Management (DIM)
Post Graduate Diploma in Management (PGDIM)
Post Graduate Diploma in Human Resource Management (PGDHRM)
Post Graduate Diploma in Financial Management (PGDFM)
Post Graduate Diploma in Operations Management (PGDOM)
Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management (PGDMM)

All the above programmes have multi-media design, and technology aided delivery systems. These are offered through countrywide network of study centres. The University will be admitting the students for the above degree/diplomas in Management starting from July 2009 through an Entrance Test 'OPENMAT-XXV' to be held on Sunday, the 01st February, 2009 all over the country.

'Student Handbook & Prospectus for Management Programme', can be obtained from the Registrar (SED), IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068 and from all the Regional Centres of IGNOU by sending a sum of Rs.550/- through Demand Draft/IPO in favour of IGNOU payable at New Delhi/city of concerned Regional Centre or by paying Rs.550/-in cash at the respective sale counters. Last date for receipt of request for 'PROSPECTUS' by post is 20th December, 2008.

Application form and prospectus can also be downloaded from the website: www.ignou.ac.in and sent alongwith a DD/IPO for Rs.500/-in favour of IGNOU payable at New Delhi by Registered/Speed Post to: Registrar (SED), Block-12, IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-68.

Filled in form for Entrance Test 'OPENMAT-XXV' must reach, the Registrar (SED), IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068, by Registered post/Speed Post on or before 31st December, 2008.

Bank PO Test Samples Question Paper

2009-01-14T05:23:00.000-08:00

false MicrosoftInternetExplorer4

VERBAL COMPREHENSION

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that

follow.

Passage

On clear moonless evenings when it is completely dark, you can sometimes

see a faint glow from the horizon. It is called the zodiacal light as it runs

along the zodiac, the constellation through which the planets appear to

travel. This glow is sunlight, reflected off dust particles in the solar system it

is brightest near the sun, so it is best visible after sunset or before dawn,

when the sun is just far enough below the horizon to leave the sky

completely dark.

1. According to this passage the zodiac is a________

a. Collection of sun signs

b. Constellation

c. Star

d. Planet

2. The zodiacal light can be seen only on_____

a. Moonless nights

b. Starry Nights

c. Moonless evenings

d. Alternate days

Directions: Choose the best word from the given options to complete

the sentence.

1. Passing gravy through a ________removes lumps.

a. Mixture

b. Sieve

c. Tap

d. Cap

2. The politician’s poor behaviour was overlooked because of his

________.

a. Selfishness

b. Reluctance

c. Resistance

d. Charisma

3. The latest novel in the series opened with a _________ of the previous

books.

a. Syntax

b. Signage

c. Symphony

d. Synopsis

4. Salt is a __________ ingredient in the preparation of any type of food.

a. Indicative

b. Cheerful

c. Outstanding

d. Vital

NUMERICAL COMPREHENSION

Directions: Each of the questions below is followed by two statements,

labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. In these questions you

do not actually have to compute an answer, but rather you have to decide

whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the

questions. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of

mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in a month),

you are to blacken the box on the answer sheet under:

A. If statements (1) ALONE is sufficient but Statement (2) alone is not

sufficient to answer the question asked.

B. If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient but statement (1) alone is not

sufficient to answer the question asked.

C. If BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the

question asked, but NIETHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D. If EACH statement is sufficient by itself to answer the question asked.

E. If statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the

question asked and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

1. How much did Seema weigh before she started dieting?

1. She now weighs 63 kilos

2. Seema lost 9 kilos

2. If x and y are numbers, which weighs more: x blue marbles or y red

marbles?

1. x = 5 y

2. Red marbles weigh 1 gram each

3. Are there more than 200 pages in the book?

1. John reads at 7 pages an hour

2. There are 500 pictures in the book with at least one picture per

page

Directions: read the problem statements give below and choose the

answer that best fits as a solution.

1) A & B invested RS 2000 & RS 5000. So if there is a profit of RS 28000

what is A’s share if they share the profits in the ratio 2:5?

a) 4000

b) 5000

c) 8000

d) 7000

2) If apples are bought at 11 for RS 10 & sold at 10 for RS 11, how much

will be the gain %?

a) 5%

b) 4%

c) 3%

d) 2%

3) Viral can do a piece of work in 10 days & Raja in 15days. If both of them

work together how long will it take to finish the work?

a) 6days

b) 5days

c) 7days

d) 8days

Directions: Refer to the data give in the table below and answer

the questions that follow.

Performance

Average Good Excellent Total

Male 16 22 10 48

Female 24 8 0 32

Total 40 30 10 80

1. What proportion of good students are male?

a. 2%

b. 3%

c. 4%

d. 5%

2. Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female?

a. 2:3

b. 3:2

c. 2:5

d. 3:4

3. Among which group (male/ female) is the number of good students

exactly one third of the number of average students?

a. Male

b. Female

c. Neither

d. Both

Directions: Choose from the five diagrams marked a, b, c, d and e the

one that best illustrates the relationship among three given classes

in each of the questions. Each class is depicted as a circle in the

figures below.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

1. Vanilla, Chocolate, Ice cream

2. Lotus, flowers, orange

3. Doctors, Teachers, Painters

4. Dentists, Veterinarians, Doctors

Directions: Consider the information given and answer the

questions that follow.

Suresh is heavier than Anil, but not as heavy as Raju. Anil is heavier than

Jayesh. Krishnan is heavier than Suresh, but lighter than Raju.

Who among them is the heaviest?

a. Anil

b. Krishnan

c. Suresh

d. Raju

e. Jayesh

Who among them is the lightest?

a. Anil

b. Krishnan

c. Suresh

d. Raju

e. Jayesh

Answer Key

Reading comprehension

1. b

2. c

Sentence completion

1. b

2. d

3. d

4. d

Numerical: Sufficiency

1. c

2. e

3. b

Numerical: arithmetic

1. c

2. a

3. a

Numerical: Data Interpretation

1. b

2. a

3. b

Logical: Diagrammatic

1. a

2. c

3. d

Logical: Venn diagrams

1. b

2. c

3. d

4. b

Logical: working with data

1. d

2. e

Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test (TANCET) 2006 - ME / MTech / MArch / MPlan Syllabus

2009-01-08T02:39:00.001-08:00

ME / MTech / MArch / MPlan Syllabus

The following are the topics of the syllabus for the various parts. The questions will be set at the corresponding degree level.

Part 1 - Mathematics (Common to all Candidates) (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrics (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.

Part 2 - Basic Engg. and Sciences (Common to all Candidates) (i) Fundamental of Applied Mechanics (ii) Fundamentals of Material Science (iii) Basic Civil Engg. (iv) Basic Electrical Engg. (v) Basic Mechanical Engg. (vi) Fundamentals of Computers (vii) Fundamentals of Mathematics (viii) Fundamentals of Physics (ix) Fundamentals of Chemistry.

Part 3 - Civil Engg. & Geo. Informatics (i) Mechanics of Solids and Structural Analysis (ii) Concrete and Steel Structure (iii) Soil Mechanics and Geo Technical Engineering (iv) Fluid Mechanics and Water Resources Engineering (v) Environmental Engineering (vi) Surveying (vii) Transportation Engineering (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Geographic Information Systems (GIS).

Part 4 - Mechanical, Automobile and Aeronautical Engineering (i) Mechanics and Machine Design (ii) Material Science and Metallurgy (iii) Thermodynamics (iv) Refrigeration and Air Conditioning (v) Production Technology (vi) Automotive Engines (vii) Automotive Transmission (viii) Aerodynamics (ix) Aerospace Propulsion. (x) Strength of Materials.

Part 5 - Electrical, Electronics & Communication, Instrumentation and Avionics (i) Circuit Theory (ii) DC & AC Machines (iii) Control Systems (iv) Communication Systems (v) Power Electronics (vi) Network Analysis (vii) Microprocessors, Computer Applications (viii) Transducers and Instrumentation (ix) Avionics.

Part 6 - Earth Sciences (i) Physical Geology and Geo Morphology (ii) Petrology (iii) Structural Geology (iv) Economic Geology (v) Geo Physics and Engineering Geology (vi) Remote Sensing (vii) Hydro Geology.

Part 7 - Production and Industrial Engineering (i) Casting, metal forming and metal joining processes (ii) Tool Engineering, Machine tool operation, Metrology and inspection (iii) Engineering Materials, Processing of Plastics and Computer Aided Manufacturing (iv) Product Design, Process Planning, Cost Estimate, Design of Jigs and Fixtures and Press Tools (v) Operations Research (vi) Operations Management (vii) Quality Control Reliability and Maintenance.

Part 8 - Computer Science and Engineering (i) Discrete Mathematical Structures, Formal Language and Automatia (ii) Microprocessor and Hardware Systems (iii) Computer Organization and Architecture (iv) System Programming including Assemblers, Compilers and Operating Systems (v) Programming Methodology, Data Structures and Algorithms including A1 Algorithm (vi) Database Systems (vii) Computer Networks.

Part 9 - Chemistry, Chemical Engg. & Ceramic Tech. (i) Thermodynamics and Kinetics (ii) Heat and Mass Transfer (iii) Fluid Flow (iv) Chemical Process Industries (v) IR, NMR and Mass Spectrometry (vi) Polymer Chemistry and Polymerisation Processes (vii) Fine Ceramics (viii) Glass & Cement (ix) Refractory Materials (x) Organic reactions (xi) Electro Chemistry.

Part 10 - Textile Technology (i) Textile Fibers - Production and Properties (ii) Spinning (iii) Fabric Production (iv) Textile Physics (v) Chemical Processing of Textile Materials (vi) Process and Quality Control in Textile Materials.

Part 11 - Leather Technology (i) Chemistry of Proteins - Collagen and keratin (ii) Principles of various pre-tanning, tanning and post-tanning finishing operations (iii) Technological aspects of various leather manufacture (iv) Environmental & Management in Leather Industries - Animal and Tannery by-products Utilisation (v) Leather Machinery (vi) Analysis and Testing of Materials used in Leather Processing as well as Leather (vii) Design and Construction of Footwear and Leather Goods.

Part 12 - Architecture (i) Building Materials (ii) Building Construction and Technology (iii) History of Architecture (iv) Principles of Architecture (v) Building Services (vi) Housing (vii) Urban Design and Renewal (viii) Town Planning (ix) Landscape Architecture (x) Climatology.

Part 13 - Physics and Material Science (i) Crystal Physics (ii) Electricity and Magnetism (iii) Optics and Quantum Mechanics (iv) Modern Physics (v) Mechanical and Electronic Properties of Materials (vi) Chemical and Thermal properties of materials (vii) Traditional and advanced ceramics.

Part 14 - Applied Probabilities and Statistics (i) Probability - Introductory ideas (ii) Measures of central tendency and Dispersion (iii) Random variable (one and dimensional) (iv) Standard Probability distributions (v) Sampling and sampling distribution, Estimation (vi) Regression and Correlation analysis (vii) Time series.

Part 15 - Social Sciences (i) Settlement Geography (ii) Economic Geography (iii) Industrial locations (iv) Regional Planning (v) Information Systems (vi) Urban Sociology (vii) Community Development (viii) Social Development and Change (ix) Public Participation (x) Rural Development (xi) Agglomeration Economics (xii) Economic base of settlements (xiii) Development Economics and Planning (xiv) Land Economics and Industrialization Policy.

Evaluation Scheme

The question paper will have 15 parts. Part 1 (Mathematics) has 30 questions. Part 2 (Basic Engg. and Science) has 45 questions. Part 1 and Part 2 are common for all the candidates. Parts 3 to 15 relate to various disciplines such as Civil, Mech. etc. each part consisting of 40/45 questions. Candidate has to choose any one of the disciplines and has to answer all the questions in that discipline. The questions will be of scholastic aptitude type. While evaluating the answers, one mark is awarded for each correct answer and 1/3 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. However, no deduction will be made for questions left unanswered. Multiple shading will be considered as wrong answer and 1/3 mark will be deducted.

Normalisation of Marks

The Entrance Test conducted for M.E./M.Tech./M.Arch./M.Plan candidates have Mathematics and Basic Engg. & Science as common parts and Part 3 meant for different disciplines. On evaluation the mean (m) marks and the standard deviation(s) of marks (raw marks) may vary from discipline to discipline under Part 3 to Part 15. Normalised marks are obtained using the formula: Normalised marks = 50 + (10/s) (raw marks - m). This gives the relative ranking of candidates in any discipline.

Handling of the Answer sheet

The candidate has to choose the correct answer and shade the corresponding oval in the answer sheet with either HB pencil or ball point pen (blue or black) for that question. Wherever writing is involved use ball point pen only. If more than one oval is shaded for a question then it will be treated as wrong answer The shaded information are captured by the scanner and the details are transferred to computer for evaluation. Even a small stray Pen/Pencil mark on the sheet will be captured by the scanner which may lead to wrong evaluation resulting in reduction of marks. When changes are to be made in the answer, erase the original pencil shading completely and shade the new oval. Shade the oval fully so that the number printed inside completely disappears. Improper shading and light shading are likely to be missed by the scanner, which may result in reduction of marks.

Important Note

The Question Book in each subject may have different versions. Each question book will have a unique serial number. The candidate must shade and write the question book serial number on the Answer sheet in the appropriate boxes and ovals. This is very important, as the evaluation will be based on what the candidates specify on the answer sheet. Any mistake committed in this regard may result in the answer sheet being evaluated against a different set of question.

Recommended Books ans Study Materials For Entrance Exams 2009

2009-01-07T20:08:00.001-08:00

IIT JEE 2009

Physics:

MECHANICS
• H.C. Verma
• Resnick and Halliday
• I.E. Irodov
OPTICS
• H..C. Verma
HEAT AND WAVES
• H.C. Verma
• Resnick and Halliday
ELECRICITY AND MAGNETISM
• Resnick and Halliday
• R.J. Smith — Circuits devices and systems
• I.E. Irodov
MODERN PHYSICS
• H.C. Verma
• I.E. Irodov

Chemistry:

GENERAL CHEMISTRY
• J.D.. Lee
• O.P. Aggarwal
• R.C.Mukerjee
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
• Morrison & Boyd and its solutions
• Parmar & MP Chawla — Reaction mechanism in Organic Chemistry
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
• NCERT Inorganic Chemistry
• J.D. Lee– Concise Inorganic Chemistry
• O.P. Aggarwal

Mathematics:

ALGEBRA
• Hall and Knight — High school mathematics
• M.L. Khanna
CALCULUS and ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
• G.N.Berman
• Thomas and Finney — Calculus and analytic geometry
• Loney — Coordinate geometry
• M.L. Khanna
• I.A.Maron
VECTORS
• M.L. Khanna
AIEEE 2009

Physics:

H.C. Verma – Concepts of Physics Vol I and II
I.E. Irodov – Problems in General Physics
Halliday, Resnick & Walker – Fundamentals of Physics
Sears and Zemansky – University Physics
Nelkon and Parker– Advanced Level Physics
A.A Pinsky – Problems in Physics
S.S Krotov – Aptitude Test Problems in Physics
L.A. Sena – A collection of questions and Problems in Physics
V.Zubov & V.Shalnov – Problem in Physics
S.L Loney – Elements of Dynamics Part I & II
S.L. Loney – Dynamics of a Particle & of Rigid Bodies
R.P. Feynman – The Feynman Lectures on Physics vols 1 & 2
Chen, Min– Physics Problems w/solutions
Tipler – Physics Vols I & II

Chemistry:

• NCERT – Chemistry XI & XII
• P. Bahadur – Physical Chemistry
• Arihant Prakashan– Organic Chemistry
• O.P. Agarwal– IIT Chemistry
• Ebbing – General Chemistry
• J.D. Lee Concise — Inorganic Chemistry
• R.T. Morrison, R.N. Boyd – Organic Chemistry
• R.C. Mukhrjee – Numerical Chemistry
• Francis Carey – Organic Chemistry
• I. L. Finar – Organic Chemistry-Vol I
• Bahal & Bahal – Organic Chemistry
• Sienko & Plane – Chemistry Principles & Applications
• P.W. Atkins – Physical Chemistry
• Bruce H. Mahan – University Chemistry

Mathematics:

• R. S. Agarwal – Maths XI & XII
• S.L. Loni – Plane Trigonometry Part I
• S.L. Loni – Co-ordinate Geometry
• Hall & Knight – Higher Algebra
• I.A. Maron – Problems in Calculus of One Variable
• Vectors & 3-D Geometry– Arihant Prakashan
• Vectors Shanti Narayan
• V Govorov, P.Dybov, N.Miroshin, S.Smirnova.– Problems in Mathematics
• Bernard & Child – Higher Algebra
• Dr. Gorakh Prasad– Co-ordinate Geometry
• K.P. Basu – Algebra Made Easy
• DoroFeev, Patapov – Elementary Math's
• Krechmar Math's
• G.N. Berman – A Problem Book in Mathematical Analysis
• W. Feller – Intro. to Probability & its Applications
• Calculus J. Edward

MAT 2007 Question Paper Analysis Sample

2009-01-03T17:24:00.001-08:00

MAT - 4^th Feb 2007 Analysis

Exam Snapshot

No. of Questions	200
Marking Scheme	1
Negative marking	¼
Number of Sections	0
Number of Choices	4
Duration	150 Min

MAT is continuing with a spree of new changes along with retaining the changes that it has undergone in the recent times. To begin, the exam came without ‘Sections’ though the weightage of the regular five areas – Verbal Skills, Mathematical Skills, Data Analysis and Sufficiency, Intelligence and Critical Reasoning, India and Global Environment - remained the same with 40 questions from each of these areas.

Verbal Skills No. of Questions: 40

Area	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Vocabulary	Blanks	4	Easy	2	3
Grammar	Correct form of underline part	4	Easy	3	5
Grammar	Best replacement	4	Moderate	3	5
Verbal Reasoning	Para Jumbles	4	Difficult	4	7
	Critical Reasoning	4	Moderate
	Conveys the meaning	4	Moderate
Reading Comprehension	Passage based on Nuclear Deal (710 words)	4	Moderate	5	8
	Passage based on Chinese Psychology (650 words)	5	Difficult
	Passage based on Indo-Pak Issue (430 words)	4	Moderate
	Passage based on Labour Reforms (1020 words)	3	Difficult
Overall		40	Moderate	14	23

This section is a mix of easy vocabulary and grammar questions, tricky verbal reasoning questions and lengthy passages. A good strategy here would have been to answer the R.C. questions first, and then move to the verbal questions. A good student should have attempted 20 questions in 30 minutes.

Mathematical Skills No. of Questions: 40

Area	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Simple Equations	3	Difficult	15	20
PPL	8
AMA	6
S.I/C.I	3
Time & Work	3
Time & Distance	8
P & C	2
Mensuration	5
Trigonometry	2
	40

The dominating areas of this section remained the same. The number of questions from higher maths decreased to 4 questions from 10 questions in the December MAT. Due to the above two factors, the paper should become easier but that did not happen as most of the questions were either difficult or moderate. Students who were trying to attempt only easy questions could have ended up attempting very few questions. A good student should have attempted 20 questions in 35 minutes.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency No. of Questions: 40

Area	Topic	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
D.I	Table	Hotels in Mumbai	5	Easy	16	20
	Table	Thermal Hydel & Nuclear Power	6	Easy
	Table	Composition of Exports	4	Moderate
	Table	Production of Plastic Products	5	Moderate
	Bar & Line Graph	Circulation of Magazines	5	Moderate
	Bar & Pie Chart	Sales of Life Insurance Policies	3	Moderate
	Networks	Flow in different pipes	3	Easy
DS	Data Sufficiency	Two Statements	5	Easy	5	7
DS	Comparisons	GRE Type	4	Easy	5	7
Overall			40	Easy	21	27

This section is easy compared to recent MATs. The first reason is the absence of three statement D.S. which used to contribute 8 or 9 marks in the section and also to the woes of the test taker. The second reason is most of the questions are direct, and some of those can be answered by simple elimination techniques. The strategy here must be to pick the easy questions in most of the sets and not to worry about the questions involving intense calculations. A good student should have attempted 25 questions in 35 minutes.

Intelligence and Critical Reasoning No. of Questions: 40

Area	Topic	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Analytical Reasoning	Distribution	Persons - TV Channel Programmes	3	Easy	8	10
	Distribution	Persons - Subjects	3	Easy
	Distribution	Persons - Subjects	3	Easy
	Sequencing	Books of Different Subjects	3	Easy
	Blood Relations	Journalists & Two couples	3	Moderate
Deductions/ Connectives	Connectives	If & then	3	Moderate	3	5
	Deductions	4 Conclusions	3	Difficult
	Deductions	Statements & Conclusions	3	Moderate
	Deductions	Best argument	3	Moderate
Individual Qs	Directions, Calendars, Blood relations,		13	Difficult	5	8
Overall			40	Moderate	16	23

The two notable changes aspects of this section is the increase in the number of sets of Analytical Reasoning and also the absence of Critical Reasoning viz., Assumptions, Courses of Action. In Analytical Reasoning, there are only 3 questions for each set, and most of the sets are direct. Hence one could have easily attempted these questions. The questions based on Deductions/Connectives need thorough knowledge of these topics. Of the individual questions, only a handful are easy enough to crack in the time available. The strategy here must be to go by your strengths in selecting the questions of Analytical Reasoning, Deductions and Connectives and to be choosy in solving the individual questions. A good student should have attempted 20 questions in 35 minutes.

India and Global Environment No. of Questions: 40

Area	Topic	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
GK-General	General	8	Moderate	5	8
GK-General	Economics & Industries	4	Moderate	5	8
Current Affairs-General	General	16	Moderate	10	12
Current Affairs-General	Economics & Industries	12	Moderate	10	12
Overall		40	Moderate	15	20

In the section, most of the questions were based on current affairs. Further, the questions were from a wide range of topics from ‘The venue of next Olympics’ to ‘The state with the maximum number of districts’. The strategy here must be to glance at as many questions as possible. A good student should have attempted 15 questions in this section.

EXAM SUMMARY

Attempts	Expected Accuracy	Marks	Expected Percentile
85 +	80% +	68 +	90 +
100 +	80% +	80 +	99 +

MAT 2006 Model Question Paper Analysis

2009-01-03T17:24:00.000-08:00

MAT- 3rd Dec 2006 Analysis

Exam Snapshot

No. of Questions	200
Marking Scheme	1
Negative marking	¼
Number of Sections	0
Number of Choices	4
Duration	150 Min

The trend of exams being on the more difficult end of the scale continues into the second week after CAT. MAT usually known to be benign in terms of the exam content came as a complete surprise package to test takers. The exam to begin came without ‘Sections’ though most would have recognized the regular areas that were a part of it. As is the case with most management exams, MAT had questions from 5 distinct areas viz. English Usage, Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation/Data Sufficiency, Reasoning and General Knowledge, with exactly 40 questions in each of them

English Usage
No. of Questions : 40

This section was of a higher standard than the typical MAT papers of earlier years. Vocabulary based questions were of the ‘easy’ type and one could have score at least 4 marks in about 1-2 minutes. The sentence correction questions tested the students on the basics and a majority could have got a score of around 2-3 in less than a minute. The Para-jumble and the Paragraph completion questions were quite difficult though not in the league of CAT and most would have taken quite a bit of time here to crack them. A score of 2-3 was possible in each of them in around 10-12 minutes. Fill in the blanks questions were quite easy inspite of having 2 blanks on account of the very ‘out of the way’ choices that were given which helped one eliminate them. The RC section was easy and a score of around 6-8 was possible in around 12-15 minutes. A par score for this section should be around 16-20 in about 28-32 min. A score in the range of 28-30 should be considered good.

Area		Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Score	Good Score
VA	Antonyms	Simple Words	4	Easy	2	3
	Synonyms	Simple Words	4	Moderate	2	3
	Grammar	4 underlined parts	4	Easy	2-3	4
	ParaJumbles	4/5 sentences	4	Difficult	2	3
	Paragraph Completion	CAT type	4	Difficult	1-2	3
	FIB	2 Words in blank	5	Easy	2-3	4
RC	Passages	3 passages	15	Difficult	5-6	8-10
Overall			40	Moderate	16-20	28-30

Quantitative Aptitude
No. of Questions : 40

The Quant in MAT comprised of Arithmetic and Pure Maths questions. Arithmetic had around 29 questions and was of the moderate difficulty level. The questions mostly focused on Time and Work and SI/CI. The questions were based on the application of formula and were not reasoning intensive. A score of 10-12 was possible in around 20-22 min. However the same cannot be said about the Pure Maths questions which focused on Probability, Progressions and P&C and were quite difficult in nature. A score of 3-4 would be possible in around 7-8 minutes. A good time allocation for this section would be around 30 min with a score of 14-18 being par for the course.

QA	Area	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Score	Good Score
	Arithmetic	29	Moderate	10-12	18-20
	Pure Math	11	Difficult	3-4	6-7
Overall		40	Moderate	14-18	28-30

Reasoning
No. of Questions : 40

This section was akin to the one in IRMA last week. This proved to be a difficult section for students on account of the numerous questions from the ‘Critical Reasoning’ domain. A good strategy would be to start with the Input/Output and Letter series questions where a score of 3-4 in about 5-6 min was very much possible. The Blood Relations puzzle was very difficult and one should have avoided it. The questions on Arguments and Inferences were of a moderate difficulty level and should have been attempted by those who are comfortable with those areas. A score of 4-5 is possible in around 6-7 minutes. All in all any attempts in the range of 25-30 with an accuracy of 75-80% would be considered good. A score of 14-15 would be par for the section and anything in the range of 25-27 in around 35 min would be considered good.

Area		Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Score	Good Score
Reasoning	Input Output	Easy Logic	3	Easy	2	3
	Blood Relations	Set Based	5	Difficult	1	2-3
	Letter Series	Very Easy	3	Easy	2	3
	Coding Decoding	Very Easy	2	Easy	1	2
	Individual	Clocks/Odd man Out &nbspetc.	7	&nbspModerate	2-3	4
	Arguments	Statement Based	5	Moderate	2	3
	Inferences	Passage ( Definitely True/False)	5	Moderate	2	3-4
	Conclusions	Passage based	5	&nbspDifficult	1	2
	Deductions	2 stats/4 conclusions	2	Easy	1	2
	Deductions	3 stats/ 4 conclusions	3	Difficult	0	1
Overall			40	Moderate	14-15	25-27

Data Interpretation/ Data Sufficiency
No. of Questions : 40

There were 13 Q’s in Data Sufficiency and 27 in Data Interpretation. Students would have found this section to be the easiest as most of the sets were easier replicas of the ones that appeared in the AIMCAT’s and the MC’s. The Data Redundancy questions where one had to identify the statement that wasn’t required to answer the question were different though not very difficult. The DS questions with 3 statements were the ones that could have created problems for the students. A score of 5-6 in around 8-9 min was possible in this section. The DI sets on ‘Course Selection’ and ‘Students Qualified’ would have evoked a sense of deja-vu as similar questions were asked in the AIMCAT’s. However the set on the ‘Biscuit’ company wasn’t easy to ‘digest’ and should have been avoided. All in all this was a very doable ‘section’ and a score of 15-19 is par for the course and a score in the range of 26-28 min would be considered good.

Area		Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Score	Good Score
DS	Data Redundancy	3 Statements	4	Moderate	1	2-3
	Data Sufficiency	2 Statements	4	Easy	2-3	4
	Data Sufficiency	3 Statements	5	Moderate	2	3
DI	Table	Course Selection	4	Very Easy	3	4
	Table	Students Appeared/Qualified	5	Moderate	2-3	4
	Tables	Biscuit Company Sales	5	Very Difficult	0-1	2
	Pie Chart	Sales Value & Volume	5	Moderate	2	3
	Line Graph	Speed & Acceleration	4	Easy	2-3	4
	Caselet	Income Tax	4	Moderate	1	2-3
Overall			40	Moderate	15-19	26-28

General Knowledge
No. of Questions : 40

Students who had read a lot on ‘Current Affairs’ and GK would have not been able to deal with this section on account of the high focus on ‘Economics’ based questions. Attempts in the range of around 20-25 with 70% accuracy would be a good one. A score of around 14-18 in about 20 min would be considered to be par and anything in the range of 22⁺ would be considered good.

Area	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Score	Good Score
GK	8	Difficult	2-3	4
Current Affairs	5	Moderate	3	4
Basic Economics	27	Easy	9-11	14-16
Overall	40	Moderate	14-18	22-24

Sectional Scores

English Usage	-	18⁺
Quantitative Aptitude	-	16⁺
Reasoning	-	15⁺
Data Interpretation	-	17⁺
General Knowledge	-	16⁺

A score of around 105-110 should rank one in the 99⁺ percentile.

Good Colleges in MAT

The following is the partial list of some of the good colleges in alphabetical order accepting MAT scores of 3rd Dec 2006.

Institute	Location	URL
Alliance Business Academy	Bangalore	www.alliancebschool.org
Amity Business School	Noida	www.amity.edu
Apeejay School of Management	New Delhi	www.apeejay.edu
Asia Pacific Institute of Management	New Delhi	www.asiapacific.edu
Bhadruka Group of Institutions	Hyderabad	www.bift.ac.in
Christ College	Bangalore	www.christcollege.edu
Institute for Integrated Learning in Management	New Delhi	www.iilm.edu
MS Ramaiah Institute of Management	Bangalore	www.msrim.org
PSG Institute of Management	Coimbatore	www.psgim.ac.in
Rajagiri School of Management	Cochin	www.rajagiri.edu
School of Communication & Management Studies(SCMS)	Cochin	www.scmsgroup.org/pgdm
Siva Sivani Institute of Management	Secunderabad	www.ssim.ac.in
University of Calcutta	Kolkata	www.caluniv.ac.in
Xavier Vignana Jyothi Institute of Management(XVJIM)	Hyderabad	www.xaviervjim.org

MAT 2007 question Paper Analysis

2009-01-03T17:22:00.000-08:00

MAT Analysis (December)

MAT SNAPSHOT

No. of Questions	200
Marking Scheme	1
Negative marking	¼
Number of Sections	0
Number of Choices	4
Duration	150 Min

MAT stuck to its structure of 200 questions over 150 minutes. Though the term SECTIONS as such is not there, these 200 questions are divided into five test areas (read sections) with 40 questions each. Another evident feature about these test areas is that each of them is divided into two or three parts and these parts are positioned at different places in the paper. Due to this one may end up not looking at one or the other part of some sections. Hence, one should plan the time to be distributed over different sections for efficient selection of easy questions from each of the sections. The suggested time limits for the sections are as follows.

Sl. No.	Section	Suggested time
1	Language Comprehension	25 – 30 min
2	Mathematical Skills	35 – 40 min
3	Data Analysis & Sufficiency	35 – 40 min
4	Intelligence & Critical Reasoning	30 – 35 min
5	India & Global Environment	10 – 15 min

Let us analyze the different types of questions from each of the sections along with the overall difficulty level of each of the sections.

Language Comprehension

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Vocabulary	Analogies	4	Difficult	4	6
Vocabulary	Idioms	4	Moderate	4	6
English Usage and Grammar	Fill in the blanks	4	Moderate	5	8
	Correct part of a sentence	4	Easy
	Correct form of a sentence	4	Moderate
Reading Comprehension	Passage based on Retailing	5	Moderate	7	10
	Passage based on Granular particles	4	Moderate
	Passage based on Transportation	4	Easy
	Passage based on Economy	3	Moderate
	Passage based on Art & Experience	4	Difficult
Overall		40	Moderate	16	24

As the above table suggests, this section demands good vocabulary (for analogies based on Antonyms & Synonyms as well as for finding the meaning of Idioms ) , Good knowledge about English usage ( for solving the fill in blank type of questions) , basic idea about Functional Grammar( for correction of sentences) good comprehension skills (For passages). In the sections, in case of vocabulary questions and those based on correct form of the given sentence, where the answer choices seems to be close, sequential (one by one) elimination of options works better. In Reading Comprehension questions, though the passages are long, barring some of the questions based on summary, many other questions are direct ones and the answers can be easily picked from the passage. Considering the time constraint, close options in vocabulary part , and the length of the passages, the section can be classified as DIFFICULT.

Mathematical Skills

No. of Questions: 40

	Area	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Arithmetic	Time & Work	4	Easy to Moderate	13	18
	Time & Distance, Races	5
	Percentages, Profit & Loss	4
	Averages, Mixtures & Alligations	3
	Mensuration	5
	Simple Equations , Ratios	4
	S.I and C.I	1
	Venn Diagrams	3
Higher Maths	Permutations and Combinations	4	Moderate	5	7
	Probability	5
	Heights and Distances	2
	Overall	40	Difficult	18	25

In this section, though the difficult level of the questions is slightly less when compared to any other MAT paper, there is a slight deviation in the composition of the section with as many as 11 questions based on higher mathematics. Though some of the questions are time consuming, yet most of the questions pertaining to Time and Work, Mensuration, Percentages, Ratios, Averages, Mixtures and Alligations are direct ones involving only the basics. The success in this particular section depends on one’s basic conceptual skills, and calculation skills along with good practice of the regular topics. Overall, the section can be classified as MODERATE.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Topic	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Data Analysis	Bar Graph	Tourists and Revenue	4	Easy	10	14
	Bar Graph	Rice production in Kerala	4	Moderate
	Bar Graph	Literacy rate in men, women , boys and girls	4	Difficult
	Three-D Graph	Students and Streams	3	Moderate
	Miscellaneous	Accidents at different phases of Flight	3	Moderate
	Table	Graduates and Non-graduates	4	Moderate
	Three Pie charts	Break up of Employees	4	Difficult
	Caselet	Production of X and Y	4	Difficult
Data Sufficiency & Comparison	Data Sufficiency	Two statement	5	Easy	6	8
Data Sufficiency & Comparison	Data Comparison	Quantities A and B	5	Easy	6	8
Overall			40		18	22

As shown in the above table, this section comprises of DI and DS, with DI accounting for 75% (30 out of 40) and DS accounting for 25% (10 out of 40) of the questions. Considering the type of questions asked, this section can be considered to be the most difficult section of the paper. In most of the sets, the data was represented in a confusing manner. Even one or two sets, which were easy to understand, the quantum of calculations involved made them time consuming. Added to that, there were a few sets which involved a bit of reasoning as well as Data interpretation abilities. Considering all these factors D.I in this paper is not as scoring as one would have expected it to be. Even in a section like this there is a big relief i.e., DS is on the easier side. All the five questions of DS are based on Arithmetic topics. The only aspect that could have affected the scoring must have been the change in the order of the options. Except this, there are no other excuses for not scoring well in DS, which includes five questions of Data Comparison (GRE Type), which are based on simple calculations. What was required to score well in this section was a basic understanding of different types of data and good knowledge of speed mathematics. Overall, the section is considered to be DIFFICULT.

Intelligence and Critical Reasoning

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Detail	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Analytical Reasoning	Arrangement of five friends	5	Easy	6	8
Analytical Reasoning	Family of six persons	5	Easy	6	8
Critical Reasoning	Courses of Action	5	Moderate	8	10
	Strong and Weak Arguments	5	Moderate
	Statements & Assumptions	5	Moderate
	Cause & Effect	5	Difficult
Individual Questions	Blood Relations Coding ,Directions Series etc.	10	Easy - Moderate	6	8
Overall		40		20	26

As shown in the above table, this section is a mix of Analytical Reasoning and Critical reasoning. The two sets based on Analytical Reasoning are short and direct and also on the same lines as models that students are conversant with. One should have scored well in these two sets to maximize the score in this section. The questions on Critical Reasoning were slightly confusing and zeroing in on a single choice from two or more close options required one to have good reasoning skills. Overall the section can be classified as EASY to MODERATE.

India and Global Environment

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Marks	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
General Awareness	16	5	7
Business And Economy	24	10	13
Overall	40	15	20

This section is a mix of topics with a gentle tilt towards questions based on Business and Economy compared to General Awareness. The section would have proved to be a scoring one for students who had focused on facts and were aware of the current events relating to Indian Economy, Government Policies, Programs, and mergers and acquisitions. Overall the section can be classified as MODERATE.

EXAM SUMMARY

Attempts	Expected Accuracy	Marks	Expected Percentile in Composite Score
90 +	70% +	56 +	90 +
120 +	70% +	75 +	99 +

Info on MAT institutes

The data lists out the program offered, the number of seats in it, the cutoff percentile/score used last year and the average salary at the institute. Please note that the colleges are not in the order of merit.

Institute	Program Offered*	Seats*	Cut-off Percentile/Score*	Average*
Alliance	MBA	120	80	8.25
Christ	PGDBM	120	50 (600+)	4.2
Amity	PGDM	150	650	4
Apeejay	PGDM	120	NA	3.15
Asia Pacific	PGDM	120 (80% through MAT)	MAT -600; CAT-50%ile; XAT-75%ile	4
Badruka	MPIB	60	NA	1.5
IILM	PGP	600	NA	NA
VJIM	PGDM	60	349	3
Siva Sivani	PGDM	120	40%	2.1
St. Joseph's - Bangalore	PGDM	120	50%	3.3
EMPI - New Delhi	PGDBM	NA	50%	2.85

MAT 2008 Question Paper Analysis Analysis

2009-01-03T17:20:00.000-08:00

MAT SNAPSHOT

No. of Questions	200
Marking Scheme	1
Negative marking	1/4
Number of Sections	0
Number of Choices	4
Duration	150 Min

MAT stuck to its structure of 200 questions to be attempted in 150 minutes. MAT did not have any clear cut ‘SECTIONS’ this time but these 200 questions were from five test areas viz. Data Analysis and Sufficiency, Mathematical Skills, Language Comprehension, Indian and Global Environment, Intelligence and Critical Reasoning with 40 questions in each. Each of these ‘sections’ was divided into two or three parts and these parts were positioned at different places in the paper. One danger with such an arrangement is that students might work partially on some sections and miss out on other parts of the section. Hence, one should plan in such a manner that the time is distributed over different sections for efficient selection of easy questions from each of the sections. The suggested time for each of the sections is as follows.

Sl. No.	Section	Suggested time
1	Language Comprehension	25 – 30 min
2	Mathematical Skills	35 – 40 min
3	Data Analysis & Sufficiency	35 – 40 min
4	Intelligence & Critical Reasoning	30 – 35 min
5	India & Global Environment	10 – 15 min

Let us analyze the different types of questions from each of the sections along with the overall difficulty level of each of the sections.

Language Comprehension

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Vocabulary	Analogies	4	Moderate	4	6
Vocabulary	Idioms	4	Moderate	4	6
English Usage & Grammar	Fill in the blanks	4	Moderate	5	8
	Para-Jumbles	4	Difficult
	Summary (CAT Type)	4	Difficult
Reading Comprehension	Passage based on Cricket & Other sports in India	4	Easy	6-7	11-12
	Passage based on DTH Technology promotion	4	Moderate
	Passage based on Indian Genome Project	4	Moderate
	Passage based on Food Crisis & Prices	4	Easy
	Passage based on Carbon Sequestration in Deep Ocean	4	Moderate
Overall		40	Moderate	15-16	25-26

This section probably was one of the toughest for most students as it demanded good vocabulary (for the analogies as well as for finding the meaning of Idioms), good knowledge about English usage (for solving the fill in the blank type of questions) good comprehension skills (for passages). In the sections, in case of vocabulary questions where the answer choices were quite close, sequential elimination of options would have been the best approach. The Reading Comprehension passages were quite lengthy but the questions were easy and straight-forward. The best approach would have been to read the questions first and then skim through the passage to locate the answers. A good time allocation strategy would be to spend around 25-30 min and attempt around 18-20 questions.

Mathematical Skills

No. of Questions: 40

	Area	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Arithmetic	Time & Work	6	Easy to Moderate	16-17	24
	Time & Distance, Races	8
	Percentages, Profit & Loss	5
	Averages, Mixtures & Alligations	4
	Mensuration	4
	Simple Equations , Ratios	7
	S.I and C.I	2
Higher Maths	Permutations and Combinations	1	Moderate	1-2	3
Higher Maths	Probability	2	Moderate	1-2	3
	Overall	40	Difficult	18	25

In this section, though the difficult level of the questions is on par with any other MAT paper, there is a slight deviation in the composition of the section with the number of questions based on higher mathematics going down. The paper predominantly had questions from the Arithmetic areas like Time and Work, Mensuration, Percentages, Ratios, Averages, Mixtures and Alligations. The questions were direct involving only the basics and most students would have found those questions quite easy. The success in this particular section depended on one’s basic conceptual skills, and calculation skills along with good practice of the regular topics. Overall, the section can be classified as MODERATE. A good time allocation strategy would be to spend around 35-40 min and attempt around 20-22 questions.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Topic	Description	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Data Analysis	Line Graph	Arrival, Departure of Trains	3	Moderate	13-14	18-20
	Table	Statistics of 5 players	3	Easy
	Pie Charts + Table	Distribution of Candidates	3	Easy
	Venn Diagrams	Asian Professional - Males & Females	5	Easy
	Pie-Charts	Financial Investments	3	Difficult
	Table	Train moving from Howrah to other stations	3	Difficult
	Line Graph + Bar Chart	Distribution of Tax	3	Difficult
	Table	Train & Distance per Trip	3	Moderate
	Stacked Graphs	Distribution of Expenditure of 2 families	3	Easy
	Line Graph	Set on 3 Variables	3	Easy
Data Sufficiency	Data Sufficiency	Two statements & Comparisons	8	Easy	3	5
Overall			40		16-17	23-25

As shown in the above table, this section comprises of DI and DS, with DI accounting for 80% (32 out of 40) and DS accounting for the remaining 20% (8 out of 40) of the questions. This was probably the most difficult section of the paper on account of the 10 DI sets and the extremely lengthy nature of the questions. Considering this factor D.I in this paper is not as scoring as one would have expected it to be. The DS questions were on the easier side. Overall, this section can be considered to be Moderate-Difficult. A good time allocation strategy would be to spend around 35-40 min and attempt around 15-18 questions.

Intelligence and Critical Reasoning

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Detail	Marks	Difficulty level	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
Analytical Reasoning	Family of six persons	4	Easy	10-12	16-17
	Puzzle – Six paintings on a wall	4	Moderate
	Deductions	4	Moderate
	Venn Diagrams	5	Moderate
	Venn Diagrams	3	Easy
	Input Output	4	Difficult
Critical Reasoning	Courses of Action	5	Moderate	2	4
Critical Reasoning	Statements & Assumptions	3	Moderate	2	4
Individual Questions	Blood Relations, Letter Series, etc.	8	Easy - Moderate	3	4
Overall		40		14-15	24-25

As shown in the above table, this section is a mix of Analytical Reasoning and Critical reasoning questions. The sets on Analytical Reasoning were of the moderate difficulty level and students having done enough practice on puzzles would have found this section manageable. Overall the section can be classified as MODERATE. A good time allocation strategy would be to spend around 30-35 min and attempt around 16-17 questions.

India and Global Environment

No. of Questions: 40

Area	Marks	Expected Attempts	Good Attempts
General Awareness	40	10-12	18-22
Business And Economy
Sports (Olympics)
Overall	40	10-12	18-22

A total of 40 questions were asked in this subject area. As much as 5 questions were based on Olympics. There was an even distribution of the number of questions across sub-topics like Indian economy, Global economy and Current affairs. Some of the questions were related to

1. Human development index
2. Number of companies being awarded Navratna status
3. G – 8 nations
4. India’s rank in gross national income
5. Olympics venue

Overall the section can be classified as Moderately Difficult. A good time allocation strategy would be to spend around 10-15 min and attempt around 16-18 questions.

EXAM SUMMARY

Attempts	Expected Accuracy	Marks	Expected Percentile in Composite Score
90 +	70% +	56 +	90 +
120 +	70% +	75 +	99 +

Info on MAT institutes

The following information regarding some of the better B-Schools under MAT is collated below. All Data is as per the information disclosed by the respective colleges. We advise you to verify this information through other sources as well.

The data lists out the program offered, the number of seats in it, the cutoff percentile/score used last year and the average salary at the institute. Please note that the colleges are not in the order of merit.

Institute	Program Offered*	Seats*	Cut-off Percentile/Score*	Average*
Alliance	MBA	120	80	8.25
Christ	PGDBM	120	50 (600+)	4.2
Amity	PGDM	150	650	4
Apeejay	PGDM	120	NA	3.15
Asia Pacific	PGDM	120 (80% through MAT)	MAT -600; CAT-50%ile; XAT-75%ile	4
Badruka	MPIB	60	NA	1.5
IILM	PGP	600	NA	NA
VJIM	PGDM	60	349	3
Siva Sivani	PGDM	120	40%	2.1
St. Joseph's - Bangalore	PGDM	120	50%	3.3
EMPI - New Delhi

MBA Model Question Papers and Study Materials

2008-12-27T17:11:00.000-08:00

Model Question Papers for MBA (download and save it to your PC)

MATHEMATICAL REASONING

There are few things which we know which are not capable of mathematical reasoning and when these can not, it is a sign that our knowledge of them is very small and confused and where a mathematical reasoning can be had, it is as great a folly to make use of another, as to grope for a thing in the dark when you have a candle stick standing by you. – ARTHENBOT

mathematical-reasoning

ESSENTIAL ENGLISH IDIOMS

TIPS TO IMPROVE READING SPEED
tips-for-increasing-reading-speed - 1
improving-rc-speed - 2
general-strategies-for-rc
maths_shortcuts
maths_shortcuts - II
magical methods tips
Must have e-books for MBA Prepartion
The_Foundations_of_Personality
Why-Should-you-do-MBA
The-One-Minute-Manager
You-Dont-Have-To-Do-It-Alone-How-to-Involve-Others-to-Get-Things-Done
Things-We-Wished-We-Had
The-Guru-Guide-to-Marketing
The-God-of-Small-Things
MBA_In_A_Day
Say-It-Right-the-First-Time
Catch me if you can : Quant Shortcuts
Other pdf and files for MBA :
Catabolism
Lasting-Leadership : What You Can Learn from the Top 25 Business People of our Times
Quant Problem Set 1
Quant Problem Set 2
Quant Problem Set 3
Quant Question Bank
Good Quant Problems
Quant Points to remember
MBA Maths
Maths Formula
Vedic Maths
A guide to scoring well in Quants
Neha’s Fundoo Methods
Formulae and Shortcuts
Reading Comp Strategies
Improving RC Speed :Part 1
Improving RC Speed :Part 2
Building Your Vocabulary
300 Antonyms Questions
Reading Comp.
Verbal Ability Test
Practice Passage
Practice Passage’s Answers
Verbal Ability Notes
Verbal Ability Theory
Verbal Ability Questions
DI Questions
DI Answers
Solid DI

MAT Sample Questions Without Answer

2008-12-27T16:56:00.000-08:00

MAT Mathematical Ability (MA)

The MA section of MAT is usually easy and this year too things were no different. Students felt that there was some emphasis on the topic Percentages and also Ratio & Proportion in the paper. Besides this the other sections covered were : Geometry, Time and Distance, Arithmetical applications etc. Samples of the questions that appeared are:

Q - The age of the father is 4 times the son's age. 5 years ago it was 7 times the son's age. What is his
lage now?

Q - What is the cube root of 571787?

Q - ABC is the right triangle, angle BAC = 90 o . If AD=CD, then what is BC 2 - BD 2 = ?

Q - A salesman has a 35 hours per week normal schedule. During normal hours he gets Rs.40 per hour
and for overtime he gets 1.5 times his normal charges. What is his income if he works for 60 hours
in a week?

Q - 3A+2B / 5A-3B =12/15 what is the ratio of A to B?

Q - If p/q = 2/3, what is the value of p+q / p-q

Q - Two dice are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting the sum as a prime number?

Q - 16/7 × 16/7 - * /7 × 9/7 + 9/7 × 9/7 = 1
Find the value of ( * )?

Q - There is a circular park of 20 meters diameter. Inside the circular park is a path 1 meter wide. Find
the area of the park.

Q - A can do a piece of work in 8 days, B can do it in 9 days and C can do it in 6 days. On the first two days A & B work together and on the third day C joins them. What is the total number of days worked, needed to complete the work?

Q - 100 cc of a mixture of Boric Acid and water contains 80% Boric Acid. So what amount of water should be added to the mixture to reduce the strength of Boric Acid in the mixture to 50%?

Q - Circumference and area of a circle have the same numerical value, then the diameter of the circle is?

Q - Surface area of a cube is 150 cm 2 . What is the length of its edge?

Q - A circular cord of 35 cm is drawn into a rhombus. what is the length of its edge?

Q - Two jet planes are 3256 miles apart. One is travelling at 4200 mph and the other at 1800 mph and are flying towards each other. After 1 min they would be what distance apart from each other.

Q - A bought 4 bottles of beer and B bought a large bottle of wine. The cost of large bottle is twice the beer bottle. If c paid Rs. 50 as his share and they all drank equally, what was the cost of the large bottle of wine?

Q - 6 bulbs of 40 watts light for 10 hrs. for a month and 3 bulbs of 80 watts for 16 hrs. At the rate of
Rs. 2 per KW, what will be the total expenses?

Q - What are the number of ways in which 6 rings can be worn in 4 fingers?

Q - A waiter gets tips, that are 5 / 4 times of his salary. Then the ratio of his income from tips to his total income is ?

MAT Critical Analysis and Inductive Reasoning (LR)

The questions in this section were not very simple but of average level of toughness. A few sets were decision making question where in according to the conditions specified in the questions, the solutions had to be found. Each such set had seven or eight questions following and provided a good opportunity to score. The various questions that appeared in this section were:

(a) There are seven crew members - 3 pilots and 4 engineers and conditions were specified detailing who wanted to go along with whom and who did not. Based on these conditions the questions following the information passage had to be answered.

(b) This question is perhaps familiar to the PT students who were given this question as an LR question in one of their CTs.
Directions: Read the following data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A goldsmith has 5 gold rings, each having a different weight. Data statements are :
(I) Ring D is weighing twice as much as ring E
(II) Ring E is weighing four and a half times as much as ring F
(III) Ring F is weighing half as much as ring G
(IV) Ring G is weighing half as much as ring H
(V) Ring H is weighing less than ring D but more than ring F

Q. The rings arranged in the descending order of weights are:
(1) H > E > D > G > F (2) E > D > H > G > F
(3) G > E > H > D > F (4) D > E > H > G > F

Q. Which of the above data statements is NOT necessary to solve Q.3 ?
(1) II (2) V
(3) IV (4) III

Q. Ring H is lighter than which of the other rings ?
(1) D, G (2) E, F
(3) D, E (4) G, D

(c) Besides this there were questions based on series - both numerical and alphabetical.
The questions were like:
2 5 9 14 20 -- 35
6 10 18 34 ---
5, 13, 21, 29, .......
etc.

(d) In one month five lectures on six subjects- Financial Management; Marketing Management; Business Laws; Economics etc. are to be conducted from Jan to Dec. Based on various conditions the questions following this information passage had to be answered.

Then this section contained questions on coding which was both Alphabetical and Numerical. A question asked was the coding of a command given by a General :" Get away. Fire backwards to move". Based on the coding of this command other questions similarly coded had to be answered.

This is about Analysis and Reasoning. On the whole average as far as toughness was concerned. Nothing unexpected and easy to finish in the suggested time limits of the exam had the student practiced for this section of the exam even moderately.

MAT Previous year Paper Analysis

2008-12-27T16:53:00.000-08:00

MAT December’2007 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’2006 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’2005 (By ptindia.com)
MAT September’2005 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’2004 (By ptindia.com)
MAT Decemeber’2003 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’2002 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’2000 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’1999 (By ptindia.com)
MAT December’1998 (By ptindia.com)

See the question Paper analysis done by experts in management education

South Indian Bank Solved Question papers 2007

2008-12-27T03:37:00.001-08:00

1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States?
(A) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka
(C) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
2. Which of the following is /are NOT the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
(1) A risk Capital fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial Institutes.
(2) Allocation for defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 Crore.
(3) Several new scheme to be introduced for providing social security to the people in unorganized sectors.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (B) The amount allocated for for defence in the budget 2008-09 is Rs. 105600 Crore which is higher than that in the Budget 2007-08.
3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the minimum support price of Paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that Price ?
(A) Rs. 800/quintal
(B) Rs. 900/quintal
(C) Rs. 950/quintal
(D) Rs. 1200/quintal
(E) none of these
ANS (D) The purchase price recommended by the CACP fOR The Crop Year 2008-09 for general category Rice is Rs. 1000 per quintal and for A- Grade is Rs. 1050 per quintal.
4. Wchich of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ?
(1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions.
(2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market.
(3) It is the name of the "Certificate of Deposits" provided by the banks to its retail customers.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All (1),(2) & (3)
ANS (B)
5. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at which of the following levels? Approximately---
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
ANS (E) As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at 81.4% .
6. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to gross domestic product (Tax-GDP)in 2007-08 ? Approximately ---
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10-%
(D) 11.5%
(E) 12.5%
ANS (E)
7. Which of the following companies has got "Navratna Status" recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bnak Ltd.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
8. Who amongst the following established the "Anandvan" a rehabilitation centre for Leprocy patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Bapu
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
9. Thaksin Shinawatra's name is associated with which of the follwing countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) Soth Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
10. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier "Gorshkov" to India for its defense services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
11. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the life time achievement award and is provided the status of the cabinet minister . Which of the following Stae Govt. has honoured him in this manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
12. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the "Kishore Kumar Award" given by the Madhya Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
13.The Under -19 Cricket world cup 2008 was won by which of the following contries ?
(A) Malysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
ANS (B) India defeated South Africa in the final match by seven runs.
14. Who amongst the following was the chief guest in India's Republic Day Function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nikolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
ANS (E)
15. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently ?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
16. Which of the following Staes tops in primary ,upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
17. The 11th five year paln wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and allied activities to which of the following levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
19. World Day of Water is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
20. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One Day International Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Saurav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
ANS (E)
21. Why was the name of Anatolyevic Medvedev in news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the president of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the prime minister of Russia
(C) He is the new president of South Korea
(D) He is the new prime minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
22. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in ---
(A) Bhuj Ganganagar
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
23. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games will be orgsnized in --
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Quala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (E) The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010 in Singapore.
24. Who amongst the following has taken over as the president of Serbia ?
(A) Raul castro
(B) Stefen Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Jose Manual Ramos Horta
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
25. The general election in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its parliament for a period of ---
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
ANS (C)
26. Luciana Aymar who aws adjudged the world hockey player 2007 is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
27. which of the following State Government has decided to provide ownership rights to Tribal over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit Institutions in States ?
(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangrajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
29. As we all know the Chinese economy is a booming economy and its export have played a significant role in it. What was the share of China's Export as compared to its GDP in 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
30. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating -------
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Mharashtra
(D) Guajarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
ANS (E)
31. Gagan Nrang , who got a silver medal in an International Championship held in Munich,is a/an ---
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton Player
(C) Chess Player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Fifle Shooter
ANS (E)
32. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up with an overall corpus of Rs. 500 Crore each. These funds- financial inclusion fund and financial inclusion technology funds are to be set up by the initial contribution made by the --
(A) SIDBI,NABARD & UTI
(B) NABARD,UTI & RBI
(C) Govt. of India,NABARD & RBI
(D) SIDBI,Govt. of India & IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
33. As per the Govt. Policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to Coopeartive Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies/organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agriculture cost & price
(B) Nationa Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Natioanl Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as "Reverse Mortage" . The scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in consideration ?
(A) Youngers who have just started earning
(B) Defense personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
35. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigen-mediated ceasefire Agreement to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
36. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from ist February,2008 . What is "Short Selling" ?
(1) Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading
(2) Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were alloted to the trader.
(3) Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
37. Prime minister os India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed agreement with the sama. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
(1) Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is invited to China.
(2) India to host joint millitary exercise in 2008.
(3) India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (C)
38. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has asked the Mutual Fund Industry to stop "MISSELLING" their scheme to investors. What is misselling of Products ?
(1) Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
(2) When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risk involved in investing in mutual funds.
(3) When agents invest somebody's money in mutual funds without their knowledge , it is called Misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
39. The sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchsange keeps on changing positively and negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contributed for his sudden change in the same ?
(1) Higher GDP growth
(2) Continuous foreign funds flow
(3) High volume of forex reserves
(4) Only 1 Recession in USA
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Both 3 & 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1,2 ,3 & 4
ANS (B)
40. The USA , as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards 'recession'. What happens when an economy goes in the grip of 'recession'?
(1) GDP growth slow down
(2) People lose their jobs
(3) Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants star pouring in .
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these

ANS (D)

General Awareness/Computer Knowledge Model Question Paper 2008

2008-12-27T03:36:00.001-08:00

1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa

(B) Bihar

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Sikkim

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____

(A) Tokyo

(B) New York

(C) Madrid

(D) Stckholm

(E) Beijing

Ans (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?

(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru

(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas

(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1 , 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /

(A) Jet Airways

(B) Ranbaxy

(C) Bhilai Steel Plant

(D) National Textiles Corporation

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?

(A) 5 %

(B) 6 %

(C) 7 %

(D) 8 %

(E) 9 %

Ans (C)

6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)

(A) London

(B) New York

(C) Tokyo

(D) Beijing

(E) Mumbai

Ans (D)

7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___

(A) Credit Policy

(B) Monetary Policy

(C) KYC Norms

(D) Basel Accord

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___

(A) Repo Rate

(B) Reserve Repo Rate

(C) SLR

(D) Liquidity Ratio

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?

(1) Turmoil in US Credit market

(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains

(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2 only

(E) All 1,2 & 3

Ans (D)

10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?

(A) 5 %

(B) 15 %

(C) 25 %

(D) 30 %

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?

(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon

(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region

(C) It is new battle tank produced by India

(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?

(A) Seeds

(B) Pesticides

(C) Fertilizers

(D) Organic Manure

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___

(A) India

(B) Egypt

(C) Brazil

(D) South Africa

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___

(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir

(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Governor , Jharkhand

(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand

(E) Governor, Manipur

Ans (B)

15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Recession

(C) Deflation

(D) Economic Boom

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?

(A) NATO

(B) SAARC

(C) European Union

(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___

(A) Treasury Bill

(B) Momerandom of Association

(C) Kisan Vikas Patra

(D) National Saving Certificate

(E) Commercial Papers

Ans (E)

18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

(A) Ukraine

(B) Kazakhastan

(C) Croatia

(D) Georgia

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?

(A) Manipur

(B) Assam

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?

(A) Hockey

(B) Football

(C) Lawn Tennis

(D) Swimming

(E) Rifle Shooting

Ans (E)

CURRENT GENERAL AWARENESS 2008

1. The World Heritage Day is observed on—

(A) March 18

(B) April 20

(D) April 18i

Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following held the post of Deputy Prime Minister of India simultaneously with Jagjivan Ram?

(A) Y.B. Chavan

(B) Charan Singh

(D) B.D. Jatti

Ans : (B)

3. The first Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Tinbergen and Frisch in—

(A) 1969

(B) 1968

(D) 1967

Ans : (A)

4. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Straight from the Heart '?

(A) Kapil Dev

(B) Nelson Mandela

(D) Tami Hoag

Ans : (D)

5. 'From each according to his ability, to each according to his work' is the basis of—

(A) Socialism

(B) Capitalism

(D) Fascism

Ans : (C)

6. The head of the State Bank of India is Designated as -—

(A) Executive Director

(B) Governor

(D) Chairman

Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following gases does not form part of the atmosphere?

(A) Nitorgen

(B) Chlorine

(D) Carbon dioxide

Ans : (B)

8. The headquarters of the U.S. Department of Defence is located in—

(A) Marlborough House

(B) The Pentagon

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. The Secretariat of the UN is headed by—

(A) Security Council

(B) Secretary General

(D) President of General Assembly

Ans : (B)

10. India's national calendar is based on—

(A) Saka era

(B) Christian era

(D) Vedic era

Ans : (A)

11. Who amongst the following won the "WTA Player of the year" Award ?

(A) Serena Williams

(B) Jelena Jankovic

(D) Justin Henin

Ans : (D)

12. The foreign trade policy announced in the year 2004 was announced for a period of -

(A) Two Years

(B) Five Years

(D) Four Years

Ans : (B)

13. When was the capital of India shifted from Calcutta to Delhi?

(A) 1906

(B) 1910

(D) 1901

Ans : (C)

14. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in the—

(A) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

(B) Preamble and Directive Principles

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

15. India earns maximum foreign exchange through the export of—

(A) Tea

(B) Jute

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

16. Which article of the Indian Constitution recognises Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of India?

(A) Article 345

(B) Article 343

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. In its thirteenth flight PSLV-C9 successfully launched ten satellites with a total weight of 820 kg. Which of the following satellites launched by PSLV-C9 is not a nano satellite ?

(A) NLS-4

(B) NLS-5

(D) IMS-1

Ans : (D)

18. Name the periodical which Gandhiji published during his stay in South Africa—

(A) Indian Opinion

(B) Young India

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

19. Which country is known as the 'Sugar Bowl' of the world?

(A) India

(B) Cuba

(D) U.S.A.

Ans : (B)

20. Which of the following ports has a free trade zone?

(A) Cochin

(B) Mumbai

(D) Kandla

Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following museum is located at New Delhi?

(A) Government Museum

(B) Salar Jung Museum

(D) Prince of Wales Museum

Ans : (A)

22. Which of the following commissions is responsible for control and utilisation of water resources in India?

(A) Floods Commission

(B) Central Forestry Commission

(D) Planning Commission

Ans : (C)

23. The Reserve Bank of India was established in—

(A) 1935

(B) 1947

(D) 1969

Ans : (A)

24. Lala Hardayal was an active member of which of the following parties?

(A) Gadar Party

(B) Anushilan Samiti

(D) Hindustan Socialist Association

Ans : (A)

25. Who amongst the following of Indian origin is nominated as the Governor of Louisiana an American State ?

(A) Lakshmi Mittal

(B) Bobby Jindal

(D) V.S.Naipaul

Ans : (B)

Bank Probationary officer Solved Paper

General Awareness

1. Miss Universe 2008 is—
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Dayana Mendoza
(C) Lisa Lazarus
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundii
(E) None of these
2. Who among the following has awarded UNESCO / Guillermo Cano world press freedom award for 2008 ?
(A) Anna Politkovskaya
(B) Amira Hass
(C) Raul Rivero
(D) Lydia Cacho Rebeiro
(E) None of these
3. The present Governor of Bihar is—
(A) R.L.Bhatia
(B) R.S.Gavai
(C) Buta Singh
(D) S.S.Sidhu
(E) None of these
4. India test-fired Nuclear Capable Agni III on May 7, 2008 for—
(A) Fourth time
(B) Second time
(C) Third time
(D) Fifth time
(E) None of these
5. Tenth century coins have been found from the city of—
(A) Guwahati
(B) Bareily
(C) Khandwa
(D) Ranchi
(E) None of these
6. The cyclone which struck Myanmar in May 2008 was—
(A) Willy-willy
(B) Nargis
(C) Fanoos
(D) Nasim
(E) None of these
7. The number of children, who are deprived of basic healthcare in India, as per the report—state of the World's Mothers—brought out by global humanitarian organization 'save the children' is—
(A) 60 million
(B) 50 million
(C) 67 million
(D) 55 million
(E) None of these
8. The country where the system of two Supreme Courts has been proposed is—
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following is not a member of the NATO ?
(A) Austria
(B) Poland
(C) Hungary
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
10. Who became Britain's first Asian woman Lord Mayor ?
(A) Rekha Rani
(B) Anjula Sood
(C) Reshma Shah
(D) Kavita Sahni
(E) None of these
11. The newly elected President of Paragury is—
(A) Fernando De Silva
(B) Fernando Lugo
(C) Fernando Silvio
(D) Fernando Dominique
(E) None of these
12. Silvio Berlusconi was recently elected to the post of Prime Ministership of Italy. He belongs to—
(A) Italian Nationalist Party
(B) The Patriotic Alliance
(C) People's Party of Italy
(D) People of Freedom Party
(E) None of these
13. PLA stands for—
(A) Party of Leninist Association
(B) People's Liberation Army
(C) People for Liberal Alliance
(D) People for Left Alliance
(E) None of these
14. The number of African countries which attended the recently concluded India-Africa Forum Summit is—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) None of these
15. According to a recent survey which of India's states has topped in rural electrification ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
16. Simran Kaur Mundi has been chosen—
(A) Miss India Earth 2008
(B) Miss India Universe 2008
(C) Miss India World 2008
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
17. Which one of the following won Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for 2007 ?
(A) Olafur Ragnar
(B) Javed Akhtar
(C) Luiz Lula da Silva
(D) The Milinda and Gates Foundation
(E) None of these
18. The book 'Unaccustommed Earth' is written by—
(A) P. M. Nayyar
(B) Shobha De
(C) Jhumpi Lahiri
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
19. The 2008 Edition of Wisden Cricketers' Almanack–Crickets major annual reference work has named "The Leading Cricketer of the World for 2007"—
(A) Mc Grath
(B) Jacques Kallis
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
20. India ranks …………… in foreign exchange forex reserve.
(A) Third
(B) Second
(C) Fifth
(D) Fourth
(E) None of these
21. Raghuram Rajan Committee is related to—
(A) Austerity in government expenditure
(B) Study of causes of rising prices
(C) Financial sector reforms
(D) Export-import balance
(E) None of these
22. The International Monetary Fund has estimated India's contribution to World Gross Domestic Product in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms for 2007 to—
(A) 4·6%
(B) 6·4%
(C) 7·1%
(D) 3·9%
(E) None of these
23. According to data released by the Ministry of Finance, currently the per capita debt on each of the roughly 110 crore Indians stands at—
(A) Rs. 71502
(B) Rs. 7218
(C) Rs. 10550
(D) Rs. 6103
(E) None of these
24. Which one of the three single cross improved hybrids of maize has not been developed and recommended for an All India level use by Chaudhry Charan Singh Haryana Agriculture University ?
(A) HPM–6
(B) HM–8
(C) HM–10
(D) HQPM–7
(E) None of these
25. US has decided to remove ………from its list of states sponsoring terrorism.
(A) Cuba
(B) Iraq
(C) North Korea
(D) Libya
(E) None of these
26. In the year 2006-07 India received Foreign Direct Investment Worth—
(A) $ 25 billion
(B) $ 24·5 billion
(C) $ 26·25 billion
(D) 20·5 billion
(E) None of these
27. For the first time, the T.V. Cameras and print cameramen were allowed to record proceedings of the Lok Adalats dispensing justice on—
(A) May 3, 2008
(B) May 5, 2008
(C) May 7, 2008
(D) May 4, 2008
(E) None of these
28. As a part of the partial solution to the world's energy crisis, the scientists of which of the following countries are building a nuclear fusion laboratory designed to recreate the temperatures and pressure of an exploding star ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) France
(E) None of these
29. Recently, a fatal disease broke out in China infecting thousands of children and causing death of some of them. The disease was—
(A) Bird flu
(B) Filariasis
(C) Hand, mouth and foot disease
(D) Chicken pox
(E) None of these
30. Two Indian doctors from Kolhapur have achieved a path breaking success in the research of—
(A) Genetics
(B) Stem cell
(C) New protein structure
(D) Habit pattern of different people
(E) None of these
31. Apart from ISRO, three other agencies/institutions were also involved in the execution of PSLV-C9. Which of the following was not involved ?
(A) DRDO
(B) Antrix Corporation
(C) Cosmos International Germany
(D) University of Toronto, Canada
(E) None of these
32. The Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline, slated to begin in 2009 was conceptualised first in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1989
(C) 1985
(D) 1993
(E) None of these
33. In addition to Kolkata and Delhi, the Union Government plans to start Metro rail service in four more cities. Which of the following is not included in the plan ?
(A) Kochi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Chennai
(E) None of these
34. President Pratibha Patil recently visited Chile, Brazil and Mexico. During her trip, with which of the following countries did India sign an extradition treaty—
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
35. The winner of the 2008 Wimbledon Open Tennis Tournament men's single title is -
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Andy Roddick
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Rafael Nadal
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D)

Reasoning Ability Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Officers

2008-12-27T03:34:00.001-08:00

Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.

1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ?

(A) ADFH

(B) CFHJ

(D) CEGI

Ans : (B)

2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ?

(A) FGKJ

(B) HILM

(D) HIML

Ans : (B)

3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ?

(A) CEXV

(B) CXFU

(D) EWCX

Ans : (B)

4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to—

(A) UQSERA

(B) QUSERA

(D) QSUERA

Ans : (A)

5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to—

(A) RSTU

(B) YZAB

(D) BCDE

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response.

6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?

(A) Nose

(B) Blood

(D) Lung

Ans : (D)

7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?

(A) Child

(B) Boy

(D) Nephew

Ans : (D)

8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?

(A) Nylon

(B) Rayon

(D) Terylene

Ans : (C)

9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?

(A) Direct

(B) Order

(D) Fascinate

Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?

(A) Accident

(B) Rain

(D) Damage

Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Blacksmith

(D) Lawyer

Ans : (B)

12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?

(A) Obstruction

(B) Drain

(D) Tap

Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?

(A) Sky

(B) Dark

(D) Bright

Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?

(A) Pleasant

(B) Feel

(D) Satisfy

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?

(A) Light

(B) Metre

(D) Watt

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative.

16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?

(A) Disguise, Modest

(B) Capacity, Woman

(D) Brave, Mrs.

Ans : (C)

17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?

(A) Blue, Swim

(B) Bird, Water

(D) Tree, Colour

Ans : (B)

18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?

(A) Brother, Brought-up

(B) Father, Aunt

(D) Aunt, Father

Ans : (D)

19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?

(A) Columbo, India

(B) Kathmandu, Capital

(D) Island, Harbour

Ans : (D)

20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?

(A) White, Hunt

(B) Elephant, Horn

(D) Costly, Scarce

Ans : (B)

Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks.

21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?

(A) Furniture, Tea

(B) Student, Horse

(D) Chair, Plate

Ans : (D)

22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?

(A) Sweet, Sour

(B) Energy, Machine

(D) White, Sweet

Ans : (C)

23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?

(A) Moon, Rainbow

(B) Light, Cloud

(D) Day, Night

Ans : (B)

24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?

(A) Skull, Tongue

(B) Hat, Lips

(D) Turban, Saliva

Ans : (A)

25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?

(A) Hand, Know

(B) Experience, Feeling

(D) Hair, Dirt

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group.

Column I Column II

FHIJ TW

IJK PT

IJLM SUW

GHIKM RV

GHI QRV

FGI PR

HIJ QTW

IJL QSUW

GIJ PQS

26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?

(A) J

(B) I

(D) M

Ans : (B)

27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?

(A) P, Q, T

(B) P, Q, R, S

(D) U, V, T

Ans : (A)

28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?

(A) S

(B) B

(D) R

Ans : (C)

29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?

(A) P, Q

(B) Q, W

(D) R, W

Ans : (B)

30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?

(A) Q

(B) U

(D) V

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.

31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Kanpur

(D) Sholapur

Ans : (C)

32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?

(A) Blush

(B) Raven

(D) Rust

Ans : (C)

33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?

(A) Knife

(B) Spoon

(D) Bowl

Ans : (D)

34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?

(A) Ignore

(B) Pardon

(D) Quit

Ans : (C)

35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?

(A) Bed

(B) Violet

(D) Red

Ans : (C)

Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40.

36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?

(A) Draft

(B) Cow

(D) Dry

Ans : (D)

37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?

(A) Baby

(B) Father-in-law

(D) Son-in-law

Ans : (C)

38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?

(A) Tree

(B) Purple

(D) Leaf

Ans : (B)

39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?

(A) Heart

(B) Intestines

(D) Neck

Ans : (A)

40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?

(A) Window

(B) Door

(D) Iron

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer.

41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck

(A) Speed

(B) Rooms

(D) Transport

Ans : (D)

42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer

(A) Meat eater

(B) Jungles

(D) Cruel

Ans : (C)

43. Sword, Gun, Pistol

(A) Arms

(B) Constable

(D) War

Ans : (A)

44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred

(A) Destruction

(B) Envy

(D) Quality

Ans : (C)

45. Novel, Epic, Drama

(A) Subject

(B) Literature

(D) Knowledge

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

46. Wheat, Barley, Rice

(A) Food

(B) Gram

(D) Agriculture

Ans : (C)

47. Coal, Iron, Mica

(A) Rock

(B) Minerals

(D) Earth

Ans : (B)

48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability

(A) Quality

(B) Dependability

(D) Nicety

Ans : (A)

49. Cap, Coat, Trousers

(A) Smart

(B) Shirt

(D) Tailor

Ans : (C)

50. Stool, Table, Chair

(A) Bench

(B) Furniture

(D) Office

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.

51. Resignation : Office ::

(A) Competition : Game

(B) Illness : Hospital

(D) Moisture : Rain

(E) Appointment : Interview

Ans : (C)

52. Bunch : Key ::

(A) Hound : Pack

(B) Team : Competition

(D) Examination : Subject

(E) Bouquet : Flower

Ans : (E)

53. Profit : Loss ::

(A) Success : Failure

(B) Rupee : Paisa

(D) Multiplication : Addition

(E) Adult : Child

Ans : (A)

54. Sapling : Tree ::

(A) Horse : Mare

(B) Student: Teacher

(D) Tree : Furniture

(E) River : Brook

Ans : (C)

55. Supervisor : Worker ::

(A) Junior : Senior

(B) Superior : Inferior

(D) Debtor : Creditor

(E) Officer : Clerk

Ans : (E)

56. Malaria : Mosquito ::

(A) Poison : Death

(B) Rat : Plague

(D) Cholera : Water

(E) Medicine : Disease

Ans : (D)

57. Paisa : Rupee ::

(A) Kilogram : Quintal

(B) Metre : Centimetre

(D) Weight : Ton

(E) Rupee : Wealth

Ans : (A)

58. Poet : Verse ::

(A) Prose : Novelist

(B) Author : Book

(D) Publication : Editor

(E) Summary : Paraphrase

Ans : (B)

59. Water : Thirst ::

(A) Food : Hunger

(B) Sun : Energy

(D) Ice-cream : Cold

(E) Poison : Death

Ans : (A)

60. Pulp : Paper ::

(A) Wood : Table

(B) Cloth : Shirt

(D) Iron : Steel

(E) Wood : Sawdust

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.

61. Trees and Forest

(A) Ocean (B) Page

(E) Library (F) Ship

(G) Boys (H) Classes

Ans : (C, E)

62. Constable and Police

(A) Clerk (B) Hospital

(E) Girl (F) Doctor

(G) File (H) House

Ans : (B, F)

63. Brother-in-law and Sister

(A) I (B) Youth

(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman

(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law

Ans : (B, G)

64. Cold and Hot

(A) January (B) Monday

(E) March (F) Thursday

(G) Month (H) August

Ans : (A, D)

65. High and Low

(A) Far (B) Rent

(E) Distance (F) Fair

(G) Last (H) Clean

Ans : (A, D)

66. Unsuccess and Laziness

(A) Study (B) Success

(E) Labour (F) Lazy

(G) Game (H) Honesty

Ans : (E, B)

67. Car and Garage

(A) Horse (B) Grass

(E) Man (F) Stable

(G) Animal (H) Hive

Ans : (A, F)

68. Hand and Fingers

(A) Foot (B) Eyes

(E) Head (F) Stomach

(G) Nose (H) Hair

Ans : (E, H)

69. Oxygen and Man

(A) Petrol (B) Stool

(E) Driver (F) Wood

(G) Water (H) Fish

Ans : (G, H)

70. Neat and Clean

(A) Dirty (B) Tidy

(E) Wise (F) Ravi

(G) Foul (H) Beauty

Ans : (A, G)

Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair.

Column I

(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato

(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit

(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker

(E) Stool, Furniture, Table

Column II

(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit

(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals

(R) Doctor, Painter, Father

(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal

(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian

71. (A) BP

(B) AQ

(D) EP

Ans : (D)

72. (A) BR

(B) AT

(D) DP

Ans : (C)

73. (A) DR

(B) BR

(D) CS

Ans : (A)

74. (A) BS

(B) AT

(D) DQ

Ans : (B)

75. (A) CR

(B) EQ

(D) DS

Ans : (B)